Why is it yo ME llamo and not yo llamo?

Because in Spanish there is a category of verbs called refelxive verbs that end in se rather than ar/er/ir. When you use a reflexive verb you need to conjugate the 'se' part according to the person is referring to and move it at the start of the verb. In the case of llamarse the verb goes: me llamo, te llamas, se llama, nos llamamos, os llamais, se llaman. In English yo me llamo would be literally translated as I call myself.

NB
Answered by Nicola B. Spanish tutor

24069 Views

See similar Spanish A Level tutors

Related Spanish A Level answers

All answers ▸

When do you use the subjunctive?


Háblame de las lenguas de España y cómo contribuyen a la identidad española


¿Cuales son los problemas principales del turismo en Andalucía hoy en día?


When do I use 'ser' and 'estar'?


We're here to help

contact us iconContact ustelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo

MyTutor is part of the IXL family of brands:

© 2026 by IXL Learning