Why is it yo ME llamo and not yo llamo?

Because in Spanish there is a category of verbs called refelxive verbs that end in se rather than ar/er/ir. When you use a reflexive verb you need to conjugate the 'se' part according to the person is referring to and move it at the start of the verb. In the case of llamarse the verb goes: me llamo, te llamas, se llama, nos llamamos, os llamais, se llaman. In English yo me llamo would be literally translated as I call myself.

Answered by Nicola B. Spanish tutor

19776 Views

See similar Spanish A Level tutors

Related Spanish A Level answers

All answers ▸

How do you conjugate the imperfect subjunctive?


How can we be sure you know spanish?


What is the immediate future tense and why is it different to the future tense?


When do I need to use the imperfect tense in Spanish?


We're here to help

contact us iconContact usWhatsapp logoMessage us on Whatsapptelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo

© MyTutorWeb Ltd 2013–2025

Terms & Conditions|Privacy Policy
Cookie Preferences