Why did the Conservatives win the 1951 election?

The Conservative victory in 1951 is typically attributed either to the failures of Attlee’s government – devaluation, the Bevanite revolt – or to the achievements of Churchill’s opposition, including Lord Woolton’s reforms and the acceptance of the “post-war consensus”. Yet to limit the debate to these factors neglects the importance of forces beyond the control of either side. Labour can hardly be blamed for the outbreak of the Korean War, which exacerbated the balance of payments crisis; nor can the Conservatives be credited with the Liberal Party’s failure to put forward candidates in many constituencies. The role of chance in historical causation should not be underestimated: even the timing of the election, held early to avoid clashing with a royal visit, influenced the result as Labour were unable to benefit from the economic upswing of the following year. Above all, it must be remembered that Labour actually received the most votes in 1951 – the quirks of the “First Past the Post” system enabled the start of thirteen years of Conservative dominance, and were thus (depending on your perspective) either a stroke of good luck or deeply unfortunate.

JM
Answered by James M. History tutor

14487 Views

See similar History A Level tutors

Related History A Level answers

All answers ▸

What is the difference between an opinion and an argument, and which one helps us better understand the past?


Was Trotsky’s leadership of the Red Army responsible for the survival of the Bolshevik Revolution?


Critically assess the view that the concept of miracles is inconsistent with an omnibenevolent God?


How far do you agree that World War Two substantially changed the United States?


We're here to help

contact us iconContact ustelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo

MyTutor is part of the IXL family of brands:

© 2026 by IXL Learning