Why is the inverse of a gradient -1/x?

Because the value, x and its inverse, -1/x should multiply together to give -1. This is proof that two lines are perpendicular (or having the same magnitude of gradient but opposite signs +/- ).

SR
Answered by Sherin R. Maths tutor

4904 Views

See similar Maths A Level tutors

Related Maths A Level answers

All answers ▸

Differentiate the function f(x) = 2x^3 + (cos(x))^2 + e^x


y = 3x^2 + 2x^(1/2) - 12 Find dy/dx


How do I show two vectors are perpendicular?


Express cos2x in the form a*cos^2(x) + b and hence show that the integral of cos^2(x) between 0 and pi/2 is equal to pi/a.


We're here to help

contact us iconContact ustelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo

MyTutor is part of the IXL family of brands:

© 2026 by IXL Learning