Why is the inverse of a gradient -1/x?
Because the value, x and its inverse, -1/x should multiply together to give -1. This is proof that two lines are perpendicular (or having the same magnitude of gradient but opposite signs +/- ).
SR
Related Maths A Level answers
All answers ▸Differentiate the following: y=sin(x^2+2)
A circle is given by the equation x^2+y^2-20x-24y+195=0. Draw this circle.
Shower-cleaner liquid is sold in spray bottles. The volume of liquid in a bottle may be modelled by a normal distribution with mean 955 ml and a standard deviation of 5 ml. Determine the probability that the volume in a particular bottle is:
Rewrite ... logF=logG+logH−log(1/M)−2*logR ... in the form F=... using laws of logarithms