Why is the inverse of a gradient -1/x?
Because the value, x and its inverse, -1/x should multiply together to give -1. This is proof that two lines are perpendicular (or having the same magnitude of gradient but opposite signs +/- ).
SR
Related Maths A Level answers
All answers ▸C1 June 2014 Q)4 - https://pmt.physicsandmathstutor.com/download/Maths/A-level/C1/Papers-Edexcel/June%202014%20QP%20-%20C1%20Edexcel.pdf
integrate( x^3+4x^2+3)dx
What is the derivative of y=(e^(2x))(sin(3x))
The graph above shows the line y = 3*x^2. Find the area beneath the graph from y = 0 to y = 5.