Why is the inverse of a gradient -1/x?

Because the value, x and its inverse, -1/x should multiply together to give -1. This is proof that two lines are perpendicular (or having the same magnitude of gradient but opposite signs +/- ).

SR
Answered by Sherin R. Maths tutor

4890 Views

See similar Maths A Level tutors

Related Maths A Level answers

All answers ▸

What is implicit differentiation and how do I do it?


Integrate ln(x/7) with respect to x


Differentiate the equation y = (2x+5)^2 using the chain rule to determine the x coordinate of a stationary point on the curve.


Find the derivative of f(x) = 2xe^x


We're here to help

contact us iconContact ustelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo

MyTutor is part of the IXL family of brands:

© 2026 by IXL Learning