Why is the inverse of a gradient -1/x?

Because the value, x and its inverse, -1/x should multiply together to give -1. This is proof that two lines are perpendicular (or having the same magnitude of gradient but opposite signs +/- ).

SR
Answered by Sherin R. Maths tutor

4823 Views

See similar Maths A Level tutors

Related Maths A Level answers

All answers ▸

Given that y=sin2x(3x-1)^4, find dy/dx


What is ln(10)-ln(5)?


Prove that 2 cot (2x) + tan(x) == cot (x)


Show that cosec(2x) + cot(2x) = cot(x)


We're here to help

contact us iconContact ustelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo

MyTutor is part of the IXL family of brands:

© 2026 by IXL Learning