Why is the inverse of a gradient -1/x?

Because the value, x and its inverse, -1/x should multiply together to give -1. This is proof that two lines are perpendicular (or having the same magnitude of gradient but opposite signs +/- ).

SR
Answered by Sherin R. Maths tutor

4861 Views

See similar Maths A Level tutors

Related Maths A Level answers

All answers ▸

How will you simplify (3 xsquare root of 2) to the square?


The number of bacteria present in a culture at time t hours is modeled by the continuous variable N and the relationship N = 2000e^kt, where k is a constant. Given that when t = 3, N = 18 000, find (a) the value of k to 3 significant figures


Find the nature of the turning points of the graph given by the equation x^4 +(8/3)*x^3 -2x^2 -8x +177 (6 marks)


How do I show that (cos^4x - sin^4x) / cos^2x = 1 - tan^2x


We're here to help

contact us iconContact ustelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo

MyTutor is part of the IXL family of brands:

© 2026 by IXL Learning