Answers>Maths>IB>Article

Prove that (sinx)^2 + (cosx)^2 = 1

We start with the definitions of sine and cosine, which are, respectively: sinx = opposite/hypoteneuse and cosx = adjacent/hypoteneuse. We then square the analyzed expressions to get the following: 

(opposite ^2)/(hypoteneuse ^2) + (adjacent ^2)/(hypoteneuse ^2)

And since the denominators are the same, we can add the fractions to get: 

(opposite ^2) + (adjacent ^2) / (hypoteneuse ^2)

But recall the Pythagorean Theorem, according to which: (opposite ^2) + (adjacent ^2) = (hypoteneuse ^2). So we get:

[(hypoteneuse ^2)] / (hypoteneuse ^2) = 1. QED.

Answered by Eno A. Maths tutor

11863 Views

See similar Maths IB tutors

Related Maths IB answers

All answers ▸

Talk about the relation between differentiability and continuity on a real function and its derivative.


log_10⁡((1/(2√2))*(p+2q))=(1/2)(log_10⁡p+log_10⁡q),p,q>0,find p in terms of q.


what is the geometrical meaning of the derivative of a function f?


Let (x + 3) be a factor of the polynomial P(x) = x^3 + ax^2 - 7x + 6. Find a and the other two factors.


We're here to help

contact us iconContact usWhatsapp logoMessage us on Whatsapptelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo
Cookie Preferences