'German aggression is to blame for the outbreak of World War One.' How far do you agree with this statement?

German 'agression', is repeatedly held up as the main reason for the outbreak of World War One. This is illustrated by the Schlieffen Plan of 1905-06 which aimed at annihilating armies on two fronts. Though German agression can be viewed as the main arbitrer of WW1, I do not believe that sole responsibility can be placed on any one nation, or any one individual for that matter. The origins of WW1 must be analysed through analysis of the great currents of the past - that is, long-term motivations for war such as miltiarism and imperialism - combined with the short-term shocks which made the path to war more likely, such as the two Balkan crisis' in 1912 and 1913. 

Britain is one nation that repeatedly received little 'blame' or responsibility for the outbreak of WW1. However, it was Britain's entry into the conflict which made it a truly global affair. Britain's entry, I would contend, was what transformed the outbreak of war from a regional or Western conflict into a global 'world' war. In saying this, I highlight the role played by other nations in the outbreak of war, to convey that German aggression alone cannot be solely to blame for the outbreak of WW1.

MD
Answered by Mariah D. History tutor

5829 Views

See similar History GCSE tutors

Related History GCSE answers

All answers ▸

What is the best way to answer a source question?


‘The Depression was the main reason that Hitler became Chancellor of Germany in January 1933.’ How far do you agree?


How did Hitler use propaganda to consolidate his power?


Was Britain's policy of appeasement the primary cause of World War II?


We're here to help

contact us iconContact ustelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo

MyTutor is part of the IXL family of brands:

© 2026 by IXL Learning