Why does a firm with a monopoly set price to be equal to marginal cost?

First, is important to note that a firm that has a monopoly has the ability to set its own price since there is no other competitors in the market. In addition, in economics, we typically assume that all firms are trying to maximise their profits. By setting price equal to marginal cost they do this.To see why consider the scenarios where the marginal cost is greater than the price. This means that the cost of producing the last unit is greater than the price, and is therefore making a loss, reducing profit. In the alternate case, if it is less than the price, by producing additional units, profits can be increased. Hence, it is optimal for them to set price equal to marginal cost.

RD
Answered by Robert D. Economics tutor

4864 Views

See similar Economics A Level tutors

Related Economics A Level answers

All answers ▸

What is cost push inflation?


Describe how diminishing marginal returns affect a firm's average cost.


Despite a plunge in the value of Sterling during 2016, the UK managed to post the highest current account deficit on record. Why did the plunge in sterling not translate into a reduction in the CA deficit?


What is the effect on price and quantity on flight tickets when the oil price has increased.


We're here to help

contact us iconContact ustelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo

© MyTutorWeb Ltd 2013–2025

Terms & Conditions|Privacy Policy
Cookie Preferences