Show that (sec(x))^2 /(sec(x)+1)(sec(x)-1) can be written as (cosec(x))^2.

( sec2(x))/((sec(x)+1)(sec(x)-1))Then, by the rule of 'difference of two squares', we know that this equals= (sec2(x))/(sec2(x)-1)= (sec2x/tan2x)since 1+tan2(x)=sec2(x), we get sec2(x)-1=tan2(x). By multiplying throughout by cos2(x), we get(sec2x/tan2x)=1/sin2(x)=cosec2(x)as required.

RS
Answered by Rishi S. Maths tutor

10364 Views

See similar Maths A Level tutors

Related Maths A Level answers

All answers ▸

"Solve cos(3x +20) = 0.6 for 0 < x < 360" - why are there more than one solution, and how do I find all of them?


Find the tangent to the curve y=(3/4)x^2 -4x^(1/2) +7 at x=4, expressing it in the form ax+by+c=0.


What is 'grouping' and how does it work?


How do you integrate by parts?


We're here to help

contact us iconContact usWhatsapp logoMessage us on Whatsapptelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo

© MyTutorWeb Ltd 2013–2025

Terms & Conditions|Privacy Policy
Cookie Preferences