'The rebellions which occurred during the reigns of Edward VI and Mary I were mainly political in origin.' Assess the validity of this view.

A useful formula which I always use when writing any essay and has got me through GCSEs and degree-level essays:Students should first decide in their paragraphs what their answer to the question is going to be (is the view valid or not). Then it is vital to choose a fact which a) is within the time-frame in question b) links to the themes and concepts challenged in the question i.e. rebellions and their origins c) sways the argument of the question to one side - i.e. is the statement valid or not. Once the evidence is established, students must explicitly say why that evidence is relevant in this argument and how it shows/proves something. Finally finish the paragraph by linking this explanation back to the question and clearly answering the question again to show consistency throughout the paragraph's argument/s.
Example paragraphs: "The view suggests that the rebellions during the reigns of Mary I and Edward VI were a result of different political followings. For the rebellions of 1549 this can be seen as less valid due to the Western Rebellion being motivated by religious grievances such as the issuing of Thomas Cranmer's 1549 Protestant Book of Common Prayer, written in the English vernacular. Furthermore, Kett's Rebellion was economic in origin due to dissatisfaction in the Duke of Somerset's anti-enclosure policy and inflation causing prices and tariffs in trade to increase. Therefore the view is less valid because these two rebellions were not "political in origin" but have instead proven to show economic and religious motivations. On the other hand, the view can be seen as more valid with regards to the reign of Mary I. This is because the Wyatt's rebellion was primarily stimulated by the possibility of Mary marrying Philip II of Spain in 1554. This makes the view more valid because the rebellion is evidence of xenophobia within England as people feared their political influence would be compromised by the accession of a Spanish King; thereby making the view more valid. However, as previously suggested, the rebellion was religious in its motives and the rebels did not want to see Catholicism restored. This makes the view less valid as it implies alternative origins. Yet, this notion was propaganda issued by the government in an attempt to defer some of the political grievances people had towards the marriage treaty between Mary and Philip. It is for this reason that the proposed view holds a stronger argument when suggesting a political origin to the rebellions."

Answered by Molly T. History tutor

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