How does Shakespeare present madness in Macbeth?

We should first consider what 'madness' is, and what different forms of madness there are in the play: there can be madness borne out of terror, anger, love, guilt, ambition and so on. Why is it that Macbeth and Lady Macbeth eventually go 'mad'? 'Madness' can also refer to the 'hallucinations' Macbeth and Lady Macbeth both eventually have - both characters end up being somewhat removed from reality - and when considering 'madness' we should also consider how their descent into madness is gradual, intensifying as the play goes on.We should also question the terms of the question: 'madness' is deliberately ambiguous in Macbeth. Particularly with regards to Macbeth's 'hallucinations', such as the appearance of the invisible dagger, it is ambiguous as to whether this is his own mind creating the illusion or if it is the witches creating it. The presence of the supernatural in Macbeth makes it impossible to know if characters have ever really gone internally 'mad', or if they are being controlled by external forces.In order to explore these different arguments and interpretations, we should carefully select a few 'meaty' quotations of the text (possibly 3-4). In order to satisfy the mark scheme, you should analyse the word choices Shakespeare makes and how they contribute to a feeling of 'madness', and you should also think about how the rhythm of the language (such as iambic pentameter) is contributing to this effect. It is also essential to relate it to the context of the play: for example, people at the time genuinely believed in the existence of witches and King James I had written the book Daemonologie (1597), which detailed how witchcraft worked and how it should be punished. This kind of context could strengthen the argument, for example, that witches should be considered a powerful controlling presence in the play and that they therefore undermine the idea that 'madness' stems purely from humans.