What is the difference in meaning between the aorist and perfect tense?

There is a subtle difference in meaning between these two tenses, which both refer to an action in the past. The aorist tense simply refers to a single, completed (not ongoing) action in the past, i.e. I X-ed, I did X. The perfect tenses refers to the present state which results from an action in the past which can be completed or ongoing, i.e. I have X-ed, I have been X-ing.
This can be clarified with an example. An example of an aorist tense verb would be "he broke a window", which simply refers to a completed action of breaking in the past. "he has broken the window" refers to a similar past action, but focuses on the current state resulting from it, implying the window is currently in a state of having been broken.

JB
Answered by Joseph B. Classical Greek tutor

4915 Views

See similar Classical Greek GCSE tutors

Related Classical Greek GCSE answers

All answers ▸

ὁ Τάνταλος βασιλεὺς ἦν τῆς Λυδίας . πόλλα χρήματα καὶ πόλλους ἀγροὺς ἔχων , πλουσιώτατος ἦν . Tantalus was king of Lydia. What else do we learn about him here?


What is a purpose clause and how do you construct one in Greek?


Translate: Phaethon erat filius Apollinis. olim Phaethon tristis erat quod amici eum deridebant. ‘pater tuus non est deus solis!’ dicebant.


"Ἐν Ἀθήναις διδάσκουσι καὶ νουθετοῦσι τοὺς παῖδας μετ' ἐπιμελείας." Translate this sentence into English.


We're here to help

contact us iconContact ustelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo

MyTutor is part of the IXL family of brands:

© 2026 by IXL Learning