Was James I the cause of religious disputes between the years 1603 to 1625?

The reign of James I has divided historians for centuries, however, more contemporary outlooks have made efforts to debunk the 'myth' that he was an incompetent and harmful monarch. On the contrary, evidence suggests that James was competent and experienced, with parliament working like clockwork under his supervision. Certainly, on matters of foreign policy and particularly religion, James displayed the ability to control and appease in order to move towards peace and religious tolerance. The values applied during the Tudor era, as well as a Parliament with obvious disdain for Catholic denominations, must be considered as a clear catalyst for religious disputes during this period. Despite this, the extent to which James I was at fault cannot be overlooked, as his debauched lifestyle evidently bred a lack of care for his position, all of which I would like to explore and apply to the question of whether he was primarily at fault for the religious disputes during his reign.Unlike his predecessors, James I did not succeed the throne with a political agenda - rather - he made immediate efforts to quash religious insurgence and intolerance. Indeed, his mysterious outlook on faith gave hope to both Catholics and Puritans that he would lend them his favour, however both were disappointed. James appointed Archbishop Richard Bancroft in 1604, nicknamed the 'Puritan Basher', a religious figure who would often act violently against Puritan insurgent groups and forcing Puritans to attend Sunday mass. This led to the famous retaliation in 1605, now referred to as the 'Gunpowder Plot'. In 1611, James softened his stance by appointing George Abbot as Archbishop. Abbot would condone secret Puritan services as long as these groups followed certain sacraments and dealt with groups diplomatically rather than physically. Furthermore, James attempted to improve relations with England's greatest Catholic threat in Europe, Spain, by organising a marriage for his son Charles I to a Spanish Princess. It is clear that, whatever his intentions may have been, James I acted with care and competence in strictly dealing with the religious tensions surrounding his ascension to the throne, and attempted towards religious tolerance that may have effectively diminished religious disputes in England.

Answered by Robin R. History tutor

3987 Views

See similar History A Level tutors

Related History A Level answers

All answers ▸

‘The development of nationalistic policies was primarily due to the ruling elite in Germany from 1789-1918’ Discuss (24 marks)


How have historians disagreed about appeasement as the basis of British foreign policy from 1937 to 1939?


What is the difference between voluntarist, structuralist and post-structuralist?


Who was Stalin?


We're here to help

contact us iconContact usWhatsapp logoMessage us on Whatsapptelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo
Cookie Preferences