Why doesn't 'gustarse' take the first person conjugation in Spanish?

When describing something which we like in English, we use an active construction. The sentence 'I like apples' can therefore be explained as such in English: I (subject) do the liking (verb) to the apples (object). In Spanish however, a passive construction is used. If a Spanish-speaking individual felt the need to profess their love for apples, it would go as follows: 'me gustan las manzanas', which literally translates as 'apples please me'. Think of it like this: when you want to say you're a fan of something in Spanish, don't say you like it, but that it pleases you. You are the object, not the subject. That's why it's 'gustan' and not 'me gusto', because we're talking about plural apples "doing the liking" to you. If it were 'I like football', this would be 'me gusta el fütbol' , because the singular 'football' pleases you. Now to complicate things further, this changes when we're talking about someone else's taste. If I were to say that Antonio likes pomegranates, I would say 'A Antonio le gustan las granadas'. The 'A' at the beginning is to indicate that pomegranates are doing the pleasing to Antonio, and is technically also present in 'me gustan las granadas', but is shortened (because Spanish loves grammatical exceptions). That's why the full version would be 'a mi me gustan las granadas'.