Show that (π‘₯ βˆ’ 1) is a factor of 𝑓(π‘₯)=2π‘₯^3 + π‘₯^2 βˆ’ 8π‘₯+ 5. Hence fully factorise 𝑓(π‘₯) fully.

For the show that part of the question simply substitute all the π‘₯'s in 𝑓(π‘₯) with 1, as the factor π‘₯ βˆ’ 1 means that π‘₯ - 1 = 0 therefore π‘₯ = 1. Once substituted in solve the equation and show that it is equal to 0 which proves π‘₯ βˆ’ 1 is a factor of the equation.For the second part use synthetic division to factorise the equation, diving 1 into the equation (with a remainder 0) to produce a quadratic equation which then can be solved through standard factoring. The solution is 𝑓(π‘₯) = (π‘₯ βˆ’ 1)(π‘₯ + 2)(π‘₯ βˆ’ 1)

CB
Answered by Charlotte B. β€’ Maths tutor

2679 Views

See similar Maths Scottish Highers tutors

Related Maths Scottish Highers answers

All answers β–Έ

The line, L, makes an angle of 30 degrees with the positive direction of the x-axis. Find the equation of the line perpendicular to L, passing through (0,-4).


How do you solve integrals which are the result of a chain rule e.g. the integral of sin(2x+1)


log_a(36) - log_a(4) = 0.5, what is a?


If f(x) = 1/(6x^2), where x not equal to 0, find the rate of change when x=4.


We're here to help

contact us iconContact ustelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo

MyTutor is part of the IXL family of brands:

Β© 2025 by IXL Learning